Tommy Tuberville
Senator for Alabama · Republican · United States
“(e) Report on Certain Drivers of Deforestation and Environmental Degradation in the Brazilian Amazon.--Not later than 180 days after the date of the enactment of this Act, the Secretary of State, in coordination with relevant Federal agencies, shall submit a report to Congress regarding certain drivers of deforestation and environmental d…”
“(e) Report on Certain Drivers of Deforestation and Environmental Degradation in the Brazilian Amazon.--Not later than 180 days after the date of the enactment of this Act, the Secretary of State, in coordination with relevant Federal agencies, shall submit a report to Congress regarding certain drivers of deforestation and environmental d…”
“(a) In General.--Not later than 180 days after the date of enactment of this Act, the Secretary, in consultation with the Attorney General, the Secretary of the Treasury, and the heads of other Federal departments and agencies as appropriate, shall submit to the appropriate congressional committees a comprehensive strategy, with a classif…”
“(a) In General.--Not later than 180 days after the date of enactment of this Act, the Secretary, in consultation with the Attorney General, the Secretary of the Treasury, and the heads of other Federal departments and agencies as appropriate, shall submit to the appropriate congressional committees a comprehensive strategy, with a classif…”
“``(ii) In a civil action brought under section 2255 or 2255A, for purposes of paragraph (1), the court may-- ``(I) order the plaintiff or defendant to provide to the court or the Government, as applicable, any equipment necessary to maintain care, custody, and control of such property or material; and ``(II) take reasonable measures, and…”
“``(ii) In a civil action brought under section 2255 or 2255A, for purposes of paragraph (1), the court may-- ``(I) order the plaintiff or defendant to provide to the court or the Government, as applicable, any equipment necessary to maintain care, custody, and control of such property or material; and ``(II) take reasonable measures, and…”
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“1785), an amendment made by such Act, or any other applicable authority.''. (d) Review of Reports.--Section 13107(b) of title 5, United States Code, is amended-- (1) in paragraph (1)-- (A) in the first sentence, by inserting ``and shall, in the case of an agency or office and notwithstanding section 12 of the Stevenson-Wydler Technology Act of 1980 (15 U.S.C. 3710a) and section 209 of title 35, publish such report on the internet website of the agency or office, as the case may be'' after ``to any person requesting such inspection or copy''; and (B) in the second sentence-- (i) by inserting ``, notwithstanding section 12 of the Stevenson-Wydler Technology Act of 1980 (15 U.S.C.”
“3710a(c)) and section 209 of title 35, if the reporting individual is an officer or employee in the executive branch (including a special Government employee, as defined in section 202 of title 18), or an individual described in section 13103(f)(13), the original source and amount or value of any royalties received by the reporting individual, the spouse of the reporting individual, or a dependent child of the reporting individual during the reporting period described in subsection (d) or (e) of section 13103, as applicable, that were received as a result of an invention developed by the reporting individual in the course of employment of the reporting individual with the United States Government, including any royalty interest payment made under the Federal Technology Transfer Act of 1986 (Public Law 99- 502; 100 Stat.”
“(c) Contents of Reports.--Section 13104(a)(1) of title 5, United States Code, is amended-- (1) in subparagraph (A), by inserting ``, subject to subparagraph (C)'' after ``employment by the United States Government''; and (2) by inserting after subparagraph (B) the following: ``(C) Royalties received by government employees and committee filers.--Notwithstanding section 12(c) of the Stevenson-Wydler Technology Innovation Act of 1980 (15 U.S.C.”
“(2) Title 18.--Section 208 of title 18, United States Code, is amended by adding at the end the following: ``(e) Any exemption-- ``(1) granted under paragraph (1) or (3) of subsection (b) shall be immediately reported to the Committees on Homeland Security and Governmental Affairs and Commerce, Science, and Transportation of the Senate and the Committees on Oversight and Government Reform and Energy and Commerce of the House of Representatives, including a detailed justification for granting the waiver; or ``(2) granted under subpart (C) of part 2640 of title 5, Code of Federal Regulations, or any successor regulation, shall be immediately reported to the Committees on Homeland Security and Governmental Affairs and Commerce, Science, and Transportation of the Senate and the Committees on Oversight and Government Reform and Energy and Commerce of the House of Representatives, including a detailed justification for granting the waiver.''.”
“(b) Notification of Waiver.-- (1) Title 5.--Section 13103(i) of title 5, United States Code, is amended-- (A) by moving the matter preceding paragraph (1) two ems to the left; (B) by redesignating paragraphs (1) through (4) as subparagraphs (A) through (D), respectively; (C) in the matter preceding subparagraph (A), as so redesignated, by striking ``the supervising ethics office determines'' and inserting ``the supervising ethics office-- ``(1) determines''; (D) in subparagraph (D), as so redesignated, by striking the period at the end and inserting ``; and''; and (E) by adding at the end the following: ``(2) provides notification of such waiver to the Committees on Homeland Security and Governmental Affairs and Commerce, Science, and Transportation of the Senate and the Committees on Oversight and Government Reform and Energy and Commerce of the House of Representatives.''.”
“(2) Sunset.--Effective on the date that is 5 years after the date of enactment of this Act, section 13103 of title 5, United States Code, as amended by this subtitle, is amended-- (A) in subsection (f)(13), by striking subparagraph (K) and inserting the following: ``(K) a successor to a committee described in subparagraphs (A) through (J) of this paragraph.''; and (B) by striking subsections (j) and (k), as added by paragraph (1)(B).”
“``(k) Exception for Certain Members of Peer Review Groups.--Subsection (f)(13)(K) shall not include a member of an advisory committee if-- ``(1) the advisory committee is a peer review group, as defined in section 52h.2(k) of title 42, Code of Federal Regulations, or any successor regulation, within the National Institutes of Health; ``(2) for the applicable annual certification period, the Director of the National Institutes of Health, or the designee of the Director, in accordance with section 6063 of the Royalty Transparency Act, certifies annually to the Comptroller General of the United States, in such form and manner as the Comptroller General may require, that the National Institutes of Health has applied, with respect to each such member, the requirements relating to recusal for any actual or apparent conflict of interest under section 52h.5 of title 42, Code of Federal Regulations, or any successor regulation, and maintains documentation sufficient for review under section 6063 of the Royalty Transparency Act; and ``(3) the member of the advisory committee is not a special Government employee, as defined in section 202 of title 18, United States Code.''.”
“6061. SHORT TITLE. This subtitle may be cited as the ``Royalty Transparency Act''. SEC. 6062. FINANCIAL DISCLOSURE REPORTS OF EXECUTIVE BRANCH EMPLOYEES. (a) Individuals Required to File.-- (1) In general.--Section 13103 of title 5, United States Code, is amended-- (A) in subsection (f)-- (i) in paragraph (11), by striking ``; and'' and inserting a semicolon; (ii) in paragraph (12), by striking the period and inserting ``; and''; and (iii) by adding at the end the following: ``(13) any member of-- ``(A) the National Science Advisory Board for Biosecurity; ``(B) the Advisory Committee on Immunization Practices; ``(C) the Advisory Commission on Childhood Vaccines; ``(D) the National Vaccine Advisory Committee; ``(E) the Vaccines and Related Biological Products Advisory Committee; ``(F) the Defense Science Board; ``(G) the Board of Scientific Advisors of the National Cancer Institute; ``(H) the Homeland Security Science and Technology Advisory Committee; ``(I) the Medical Review Board Advisory Committee; ``(J) the President's Council of Advisors on Science and Technology; or ``(K) except as provided in subsection (k), any other advisory committee, as defined in section 1001, including a successor to a committee described in this paragraph, that the Government Accountability Office determines, in accordance with subsection (j)-- ``(i) makes recommendations relating to public health to an agency or the President; and ``(ii) has had any recommendation fully or partially implemented during the 10 years preceding the determination.''; and (B) by adding at the end the following: ``(j) Determination Regarding Advisory Committees.--Not later than 180 days after the date of enactment of the Royalty Transparency Act, and annually thereafter, the Government Accountability Office shall publish a list of each advisory committee that the Government Accountability Office determines-- ``(1) makes recommendations relating to public health to an agency or the President; and ``(2) has had any recommendation fully or partially implemented during the 10 years preceding the determination.”
“1701 note; relating to securing the information [[Page S3984]] and communications technology and services supply chain), the President declared a national emergency with respect to the threat posed by foreign adversaries creating and exploiting vulnerabilities in information and communications technology and services. (5) The access, control, or influence of vehicle connectivity systems or automated driving systems by foreign adversaries creates substantial economic and national security risks to the United States, including risks of surveillance, espionage, cyber intrusion, and disruption of critical infrastructure. Such risks fall within the scope of the national emergency described in Executive Order 13873 and pose an unacceptable threat to the security and resilience of the United States. Subtitle H--Royalty Transparency Act SEC.”
“(2) The People's Republic of China has rapidly expanded its automotive manufacturing capacity and is increasingly targeting export markets. Despite having the largest market in the world, the People's Republic of China exports nearly 8,000,000 vehicles annually, approximately twice the volume exported by any other country, demonstrating the scale at which vehicles and components controlled by a foreign adversary may enter global markets, including the United States. (3) Connected vehicles incorporate advanced information and communications technologies that collect, process, and transmit vast amounts of sensitive data, including geolocation, operational, and personal information, and are capable of being remotely accessed and controlled. (4) In Executive Order 13873 (50 U.S.C.”
“(D) Report.--Not later than 1 year after the date on which the Comptroller General initiates the study under subparagraph (A), the Comptroller General shall submit to the appropriate committees of Congress and the Administrator a report describing the results of the study, together with any appropriate recommendations for legislative or administrative action. SEC. 6059A. FINDINGS ON SECURITY OF CONNECTED VEHICLES. Congress makes the following findings: (1) The United States automotive industry is critical to the national economy, supporting millions of jobs, supply chains, and advanced manufacturing. The introduction of vehicles and components controlled by foreign adversaries threatens industrial competitiveness and technological leadership.”
“(B) Contents.--In conducting the study under subparagraph (A), the Comptroller General shall, at a minimum, evaluate the effectiveness of the program in producing-- (i) students that score at least a well-qualified score on the Air Traffic Skills Assessment (or a successor air traffic entrance exam); (ii) developmental controllers that enter en route and terminal air traffic environments after completing the Enhanced Initiative; and (iii) developmental controllers that become certified professional controllers. (C) Consultation.--In conducting the study under subparagraph (A), the Comptroller General shall consult with the Administrator and appropriate stakeholders involved in overseeing, operating, and administering the Enhanced Initiative.”
“This paragraph shall not be construed to affect the pay, allowances, or benefits of any Federal employee who serves as a member of the aviation rulemaking committee as part of their official duties. (3) Review of enhanced air traffic-collegiate training initiative program.-- (A) In general.--Not later than 5 years after the date of the enactment of this section, the Comptroller General shall initiate a study to examine the effectiveness of the Enhanced Air Traffic-Collegiate Training Initiative program (in this paragraph referred to as the ``Enhanced Initiative'') in-- (i) increasing the education and training capacity of FAA air traffic controllers; and (ii) growing the FAA air traffic controller workforce.”
“(ii) Implementation.--Not later than 180 days after the date of submission of the report under clause (i), the Administrator shall implement the recommendations of the report, as determined appropriate by the Administrator. (iii) Justification.--If the Administrator decides not to implement a recommendation described in the report submitted under clause (i), the Administrator shall submit to the appropriate committees of Congress a justification for such decision not later than 90 days after receiving such report. (E) Prohibition on compensation.--The members of the aviation rulemaking committee convened under this paragraph shall not receive pay, allowances, or benefits from the Federal Government by reason of their service on such committee.”
“(vii) Student success rates correlated with the completion of the Air Traffic-Collegiate Training Initiative program and the Enhanced Air Traffic-Collegiate Training Initiative program described in section 44506(c) of title 49, United States Code. (viii) The appropriate method for ensuring the curriculum and training incorporates new entrants into the national airspace system. (ix) Other considerations as determined appropriate by the Administrator. (D) Duties.-- (i) In general.--Not later than 18 months after the date of enactment of this section, the Administrator shall submit to the appropriate committees of Congress a copy of the aviation rulemaking committee report provided to the Administrator under subparagraph (A)(iii).”
“(C) Considerations.--The aviation rulemaking committee established under subparagraph (A) shall consider the following: (i) The advancements in education technology, including digital resources and augmented reality or virtual reality capabilities, that may be incorporated into a modern curriculum and training. (ii) The appropriate balance between the use of theoretical knowledge and practical application. (iii) A review of instructional techniques to improve the effectiveness of learning outcomes. (iv) The real-world applicability of air traffic operations procedures included in the curriculum and training. (v) Student success rates, including outcomes of air traffic controller trainees when placed at facilities for on- the-job training. (vi) Methods for reducing the subjectivity of instructional techniques.”
“(B) Composition.--The aviation rulemaking committee established under subparagraph (A) shall consist of members appointed by the Administrator, including representatives of-- (i) institutions of higher education that are accredited by the Aviation Accreditation Board International; (ii) aviation industry organizations; (iii) FAA subject matter experts; (iv) military and commercial operators of aircraft, helicopters, and powered-lift aircraft; (v) the exclusive bargaining representative of the air traffic controllers certified under section 7111 of title 5, United States Code; (vi) organizations representing certified collective bargaining representatives of airline pilots; (vii) representatives of accredited institutions of higher education participating in the Air Traffic-Collegiate Training Initiative program and the Enhanced Air Traffic- Collegiate Training Initiative program; (viii) aviation safety experts, including those from outside the FAA; and (ix) any other stakeholder determined appropriate by the Administrator.”
“(2) FAA air traffic control training aviation rulemaking committee.-- (A) In general.--The Administrator shall convene an aviation rulemaking committee to-- (i) review the curricula of the air traffic technical training academy of the FAA, including its use in the Air Traffic-Collegiate Training Initiative program and the Enhanced Air Traffic-Collegiate Training Initiative program; (ii) review the on-the-job training, development, evaluation, and certification of certified professional controllers; (iii) develop findings and recommendations regarding the improvement and modernization of such curricula and training; and (iv) provide to the Administrator a report on such findings and recommendations and for other related purposes as determined by the Administrator.”
“``(3) Appointment of program graduates.--The Administrator may appoint an individual who has successfully completed a course of training in a program described in paragraph (1) to the position of air traffic controller noncompetitively in the excepted service (as defined in section 2103 of title 5).''.”
“``(B) Selection criteria.--Prior to selecting an accredited institution of higher education for participation in the Enhanced Initiative, the Administrator shall-- ``(i) consider the air traffic curriculum of the institution, including the institution's access to air traffic educational resources and Federal Aviation Administration air traffic facilities and equipment; ``(ii) certify that each accredited institution of higher education seeking to participate in the Enhanced Initiative has a qualified air traffic curriculum that provides, at a minimum, an equivalent level of education and training for air traffic controller trainees to that provided at the Federal Aviation Administration Academy; and ``(iii) certify that all evaluations of students at accredited institutions of higher education seeking to participate in the Enhanced Initiative shall be conducted by evaluators that are approved and certified by the Federal Aviation Administration.”
“``(2) Special rules for the enhanced initiative.-- ``(A) Requirements.--In maintaining the Enhanced Initiative under paragraph (1), the Administrator shall, at a minimum-- ``(i) select and coordinate with accredited institutions of higher education (as defined in section 61.1 of title 14, Code of Federal Regulations), as determined by the Administrator, that administer an accredited air traffic curriculum to undergraduate students, to prepare students for the position of air traffic controller with the Department of Transportation (as defined in section 2109 of title 5); ``(ii) establish standards for the entry and participation of accredited institutions of higher education into the program; and ``(iii) solicit applications from, and provide guidance to, interested accredited institutions of higher education that administer an accredited air traffic curriculum to undergraduate students, including accredited institutions that participate in the Air Traffic-Collegiate Training Initiative, to foster participation of qualified accredited institutions in the Enhanced Initiative.”
“[[Page S3983]] (b) Air Traffic-Collegiate Training Initiative Program Improvements.-- (1) In general.--Section 44506(c) of title 49, United States Code, is amended to read as follows: ``(c) Air Traffic-Collegiate Training Initiative and Enhanced Air Traffic-Collegiate Training Initiative.-- ``(1) In general.--The Administrator of the Federal Aviation Administration shall maintain the Air Traffic- Collegiate Training Initiative program and the Enhanced Air Traffic-Collegiate Training Initiative program (in this section referred to as the `Enhanced Initiative') to support the recruitment, education, and hiring of well-qualified developmental air traffic controllers.”
“(a) Definitions.--In this section: (1) Administrator.--The term ``Administrator'' means the Administrator of the Federal Aviation Administration. (2) Appropriate committees of congress.--The term ``appropriate committees of Congress'' means the Committee on Commerce, Science, and Transportation of the Senate and the Committee on Transportation and Infrastructure of the House of Representatives. (3) Comptroller general.--The term ``Comptroller General'' means the Comptroller General of the United States. (4) FAA.--The term ``FAA'' means the Federal Aviation Administration.”
“11114(b)(7)) is amended by striking ``(a)(14)'' and inserting ``(a)(15)''. (e) Authorization of Appropriations.--Section 601 of the Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act of 1974 (34 U.S.C. 11321) is amended by striking ``fiscal years 2019 through 2023'' and inserting ``fiscal years 2026 through 2030''. SEC. 6058. SENSE OF CONGRESS RELATING TO THE CORPS OF ENGINEERS. It is the sense of Congress that-- (1) the Corps of Engineers provides critical support to communities across the nation through the Civil Works mission of the agency; and (2) enactment of biennial water resources development legislation is necessary to ensure the timely authorization of water resources development studies and projects carried out by the Corps of Engineers. SEC. 6059. AIR TRAFFIC-COLLEGIATE TRAINING INITIATIVE PROGRAM IMPROVEMENTS.”
“10222, 10223)''; and (C) by adding at the end the following: ``(2) Local public and private nonprofit agencies.--Local public and private nonprofit agencies within a State shall be eligible to receive funds under paragraph (1)-- ``(A) only upon a showing by the State agency designated under subsection (a)(1) of exigent circumstances; and ``(B) in no case for more than 2 consecutive years.''. (d) Conforming Amendments.-- (1) Definitions.--Section 103 of the Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act of 1974 (34 U.S.C. 11103) is amended-- (A) in paragraph (30), by striking ``and (15)'' and inserting ``and (16)''; and (B) in paragraph (39), by striking ``(a)(15)'' and inserting ``(a)(16)''. (2) Concentration of federal efforts.--Section 204(b)(7) of the Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act of 1974 (34 U.S.C.”
“11133) is amended-- (1) in subsection (a)-- (A) in paragraph (3)-- (i) by striking the matter preceding subparagraph (A) and inserting the following: ``(3) provide satisfactory evidence that the State agency has established and maintained, or is working toward establishing and maintaining, an advisory group that--''; and (ii) in subparagraph (A)(iv), by striking ``at the time of the initial appointment''; (B) in paragraph (9)-- (i) in the matter preceding subparagraph (A)-- (I) by striking ``not less than 75 percent of''; (II) by striking ``shall be used for'' and inserting ``shall be used in accordance with the plan''; and (III) by striking ``promising programs--'' and inserting ``promising programs, which may include programs for--'' (ii) in subparagraph (F)-- (I) in the matter preceding clause (i), by striking ``expand the use of probation officers'' and inserting ``improve probation departments''; and (II) in clause (i), by striking ``non-violent juvenile offenders (including status offenders)'' and inserting ``youth''; (iii) in subparagraph (M)-- (I) in clause (i), by inserting ``restorative practices,'' before ``expanded use of probation''; and (II) in clause (ii), by inserting ``, including determining the appropriateness of programs intended to divert youth from the justice system at the earliest point possible'' before the semicolon at the end; (iv) in subparagraph (V), by striking ``and'' at the end; and (v) by adding at the end the following: ``(X) programs to address racial and ethnic disparities; ``(Y) programs and projects to collect data on the socioeconomic status of youth in the juvenile justice system; ``(Z) programs intended to help divert youth from the justice system before or after arrest; and ``(AA) programs in support of the initiatives described in paragraphs (11) through (13) and (16);''; (C) in paragraph (11)-- (i) in subparagraph (A)-- (I) in clause (i)(II), by striking ``paragraph (23)'' and inserting ``paragraph (11)(B)''; and (II) in clause (ii)(II)(bb), by striking ``and'' at the end; and (ii) by striking paragraph (11)(B) and inserting the following: [[Page S3982]] ``(B) require that, if a juvenile is taken into custody for violating a valid court order issued for committing a status offense-- ``(i) an appropriate public agency shall be promptly notified that the juvenile is held in custody for violating the court order; ``(ii) not later than 24 hours after the juvenile begins to be held, an authorized representative of the agency shall interview, in person, the juvenile; ``(iii) not later than 48 hours after the juvenile begins to be held-- ``(I) the representative described in clause (ii) shall submit an assessment to the court that issued the court order relating to the immediate needs of the juvenile; ``(II) the court that issued the court order shall conduct a hearing to determine-- ``(aa) whether there is reasonable cause to believe that the juvenile violated the court order; and ``(bb) the appropriate placement of the juvenile pending disposition of the alleged violation; and ``(III) if the court that issued the court order determines the juvenile should be placed in a secure detention facility or correctional facility for violating the court order-- ``(aa) the court shall issue a written order that-- ``(AA) identifies the valid court order that has been violated; ``(BB) specifies the factual basis for determining that there is reasonable cause to believe that the juvenile has violated the court order; ``(CC) includes findings of fact to support a determination that there is no appropriate less restrictive alternative available to placing the juvenile in the secure detention facility, with due consideration to the best interest of the juvenile; ``(DD) specifies the length of time, not to exceed 7 days, that the juvenile may remain in a secure detention facility or correctional facility, and includes a plan for the release of the juvenile from the facility; and ``(EE) may not be renewed or extended; and ``(bb) the court may not issue a second or subsequent order described in item (aa) relating to a juvenile unless the juvenile violates a valid court order after the date on which the court issues an order described in item (aa); and ``(iv) there are procedures in place to ensure that the juvenile held in a secure detention facility or correctional facility pursuant to a court order described in this paragraph does not remain in custody longer than the shorter of 7 days and the length of time authorized by the court; and ``(C) require that not later than September 30, 2028, the State will eliminate the use of valid court orders to provide secure confinement of juveniles who commit status offenses, except that juveniles may be held in secure confinement in accordance with the Interstate Compact for Juveniles if the judge issues a written order that-- ``(i) specifies the authority of the State to detain the juvenile under the terms of the Interstate Compact for Juveniles; ``(ii) includes findings of fact to support a determination that there is no appropriate less restrictive alternative available to placing the juvenile in such a facility, with due consideration to the best interest of the juvenile; ``(iii) specifies the length of time a juvenile may remain in secure confinement, not to exceed 15 days, and includes a plan for the return of the juvenile to the home State of the juvenile; and ``(iv) may not be renewed or extended;''; (D) in paragraph (13)-- (i) in subparagraph (B)-- (I) in the matter preceding clause (i), by inserting ``for adults'' after ``jail or lockup''; and (II) in clause (ii)(III), by adding ``and'' at the end; and (ii) by adding at the end the following: ``(C) juveniles awaiting trial or other legal process who are treated as adults for purposes of prosecution in criminal court and housed in a secure facility, unless a court finds, after a hearing and in writing and in accordance with paragraph (14), that it is in the interest of justice;''; (E) by striking paragraph (23); (F) by redesignating paragraphs (14) through (22) as paragraphs (15) through (23), respectively; (G) by inserting after paragraph (13) the following: ``(14) provide that-- ``(A) a juvenile described in paragraph (13)(C)-- ``(i) that is confined in any jail or lockup for adults shall not have sight or sound contact with adult inmates; and ``(ii) except as provided in this paragraph, may not be held in any jail or lockup for adults; ``(B) in determining under paragraph (13)(C) whether it is in the interest of justice to permit a juvenile to be held in any jail or lockup for adults, or have sight or sound contact with adult inmates, a court shall consider-- ``(i) the age of the juvenile; ``(ii) the physical and mental maturity of the juvenile; ``(iii) the present mental state of the juvenile, including whether the juvenile presents an imminent risk of harm to the juvenile; ``(iv) the nature and circumstances of the alleged offense; ``(v) the juvenile's history of prior delinquent acts; ``(vi) the relative ability of the available adult and juvenile detention facilities to meet the specific needs of the juvenile and protect the safety of the public and other detained juveniles; and ``(vii) any other relevant factor; and ``(C) if a court determines under subparagraph (B) that it is in the interest of justice to permit a juvenile to be held in a jail or lockup for adults-- ``(i) the court shall hold a hearing not less frequently than once every 30 days, or in the case of a rural jurisdiction, not less frequently than once every 45 days, to review whether it is still in the interest of justice to permit the juvenile to be so held or have such sight or sound contact; and ``(ii) the juvenile shall not be held in any jail or lockup for adults, or be permitted to have sight or sound contact with adult inmates, for more than 180 days, unless the court, in writing, determines there is good cause for an extension or the juvenile expressly waives this limitation;''; (H) in paragraph (15), as so redesignated-- (i) by striking ``jails, lock-ups, detention facilities, and correctional facilities'' and inserting ``jails and lockups for adults, secure detention facilities, and secure correctional facilities''; (ii) by striking ``, except that such reporting requirements'' and all that follows; and (iii) by adding a semicolon at the end; (I) in paragraph (16), as so redesignated, in the matter preceding subparagraph (A), by inserting ``that are culturally and linguistically competent'' before ``at the State, territorial, local, and tribal levels''; (J) in paragraph (17), as so redesignated, by striking ``gender, race, ethnicity, family income, and disability'' and inserting ``gender, race, ethnicity, religion, family income, disability, national origin, and sexual orientation''; (K) by striking paragraph (24); (L) by redesignating paragraphs (25) through (33) as paragraphs (24) through (32), respectively; (M) in paragraph (28), as so redesignated-- (i) by inserting ``ongoing supervision,'' before ``and training in effect''; and (ii) by striking ``management techniques'' and inserting ``management techniques and trauma-informed approaches to investigating allegations of sexual and physical abuse''; and (N) in paragraph (32)(A), as so redesignated, by striking ``upon intake'' and inserting ``upon intake and at quarterly intervals or as necessary''; and (2) in subsection (d)-- (A) by striking ``In the event that any State'' and inserting the following: ``(1) In general.--In the event that any State''; (B) in paragraph (1), as so designated, by striking ``802, 803, and 804 of title I of the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968'' and inserting ``802 and 803 of title I of the Omnibus Crime Control and Safe Streets Act of 1968 (34 U.S.C.”
“JUVENILE JUSTICE AND DELINQUENCY PREVENTION REAUTHORIZATION ACT OF 2026. (a) Short Title.--This section may be cited as the ``Juvenile Justice Delinquency Prevention Reauthorization Act of 2026''. (b) Definitions.--Section 103(22) of the Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act of 1974 (34 U.S.C. 11103) is amended by inserting ``, including any prison,'' after ``secure facility''. (c) State Plans.--Section 223 of the Juvenile Justice and Delinquency Prevention Act of 1974 (34 U.S.C.”
“1307(a)) and section 4007.11 of title 29, Code of Federal Regulations (or any successor regulation)-- (1) for plan years commencing after December 31, 2034, and before January 1, 2036, the premium due date for such plan years shall be the fifteenth day of the ninth calendar month that begins on or after the first day of the premium payment year; and (2) for plan years commencing after December 31, 2035, and before January 1, 2037, the premium due date for such plan years shall be the fifteenth day of the ninth calendar month that begins on or after the first day of the premium payment year. SEC. 6056. EXTENSION OF DEFENSE PRODUCTION ACT OF 1950. Section 717(a) of the Defense Production Act of 1950 (50 U.S.C. 4564(a)) is amended by striking ``September 30, 2026'' and inserting ``December 31, 2026''. SEC. 6057.”
“The Fund shall be credited with amounts from time to time as the Secretary of the Treasury, in coordination with the Director of the corporation, determines appropriate, out of amounts in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated. (C) Expenditures from fund.--Amounts in the Fund shall be available for the payment of the portion of monthly benefits guaranteed to a participant or beneficiary pursuant to paragraph (1) and for necessary administrative and operating expenses of the corporation relating to such payment. (3) Regulations.--The corporation, in consultation with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Labor, may issue such regulations as necessary to carry out this section. (b) Pension Payment Acceleration.--Notwithstanding section 4007(a) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C.”
“(2) Trust fund for payment of increased benefits.-- (A) Establishment.--There is established in the Treasury a trust fund to be known as the ``Delphi Full Vested Plan Benefit Trust Fund'' (referred to in this subsection as the ``Fund''), consisting of such amounts as may be appropriated or credited to the Fund as provided in this section. (B) Funding.--There is appropriated, out of amounts in the Treasury not otherwise appropriated, such amounts as are necessary for the costs of payments of the portions of monthly benefits guaranteed to participants and beneficiaries pursuant to paragraph (1) and for necessary administrative and operating expenses of the corporation relating to such payments.”
“(iii) The PHI Non-Bargaining Retirement Plan. (iv) The ASEC Manufacturing Retirement Program. (v) The PHI Bargaining Retirement Plan. (vi) The Delphi Mechatronic Systems Retirement Program. (E) Treatment of pbgc determinations.--Any determination made by the corporation under this section concerning a recalculation of benefits or lump-sum payment of past-due benefits shall be subject to administrative review by the corporation. Any new determination made by the corporation under this section shall be governed by the same administrative review process as any other benefit determination by the corporation.”
“1322) as of the date of plan termination with respect to an eligible participant or beneficiary if such section were applied without regard to the phase-in limit under subsection (b)(1) of such section and the maximum guaranteed benefit limitation under subsection (b)(3) of such section (including the accrued-at- normal limitation). (ii) Normal benefit guarantee.--The term ``normal benefit guarantee'' means the amount of monthly benefits guaranteed under section 4022 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1322) with respect to an eligible participant or beneficiary without regard to this section. (D) Covered plans.--The covered plans specified in this subparagraph are the following: (i) The Delphi Hourly-Rate Employees Pension Plan. (ii) The Delphi Retirement Program for Salaried Employees.”
“(II) Applicable payments.--For purposes of this subparagraph, applicable payments to a participant or beneficiary in connection with a plan consist of the following: (aa) Payments under the plan equal to the normal benefit guarantee of the participant or beneficiary. (bb) Payments to the participant or beneficiary made pursuant to section 4022(c) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C. 1322(c)) or otherwise received from the corporation in connection with the termination of the plan. (C) Definitions.--For purposes of this paragraph-- (i) Full vested plan benefit.--The term ``full vested plan benefit'' means the amount of monthly benefits that would be guaranteed under section 4022 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C.”
“(iii) Eligible participants and beneficiaries.-- (I) In general.--For purposes of this section, an eligible participant or beneficiary is a participant or beneficiary who-- (aa) as of the date of the enactment of this Act, is in pay status under a covered plan or is eligible for future payments under such plan; (bb) has received or will receive applicable payments in connection with such plan (within the meaning of subclause (II)) that does not exceed the full vested plan benefits of such participant or beneficiary; and (cc) is not covered by the 1999 agreements between General Motors and various unions providing a top-up benefit to certain hourly employees who were transferred from the General Motors Hourly-Rate Employees Pension Plan to the Delphi Hourly-Rate Employees Pension Plan.”
“Notwithstanding the previous sentence, the corporation shall increase each lump-sum payment made under this clause to account for foregone interest in an amount determined by the corporation designed to reflect a 6 percent annual interest rate on each past-due amount attributable to the underpayment of guaranteed benefits for each month prior to such recalculation.”
“(ii) Lump-sum payments of past-due benefits.--Not later than 180 days after the date of enactment of this Act, the corporation, in consultation with the Secretary of the Treasury and the Secretary of Labor, shall make a lump-sum payment to each eligible participant or beneficiary whose guaranteed benefits are recalculated under clause (i) in an amount equal to-- (I) in the case of an eligible participant, the excess of-- (aa) the total of the full vested plan benefits of the participant for all months for which such guaranteed benefits were paid prior to such recalculation, over (bb) the sum of any applicable payments made to the eligible participant; and (II) in the case of an eligible beneficiary, the sum of-- (aa) the amount that would be determined under subclause (I) with respect to the participant of which the eligible beneficiary is a beneficiary if such participant were still in pay status; plus (bb) the excess of-- (AA) the total of the full vested plan benefits of the eligible beneficiary for all months for which such guaranteed benefits were paid prior to such recalculation, over (BB) the sum of any applicable payments made to the eligible beneficiary.”
“(B) Recalculation of certain benefits.-- (i) In general.--In any case in which the amount of monthly benefits with respect to [[Page S3981]] an eligible participant or beneficiary described in subparagraph (A) was calculated prior to the date of enactment of this Act, the corporation shall recalculate such amount pursuant to subparagraph (A), and shall adjust any subsequent payments of such monthly benefits accordingly, as soon as practicable after such date.”
“1344(a); 1322(c)) as previously determined by the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation (referred to in this section as the ``corporation'') for the covered plans specified in subparagraph (D), and the corporation's applicable rules, practices, and policies on benefits payable in terminated single-employer plans shall, except as otherwise provided in this section, continue to apply with respect to such covered plans.”
“1322) with respect to an eligible participant or beneficiary under a covered plan specified in subparagraph (D) in connection with the termination of such plan, the amount of monthly benefits shall be equal to the full vested plan benefit with respect to the participant. (ii) No effect on previous determinations.--Nothing in this Act shall be construed to change the allocation of assets and recoveries under sections 4044(a) and 4022(c) of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C.”
“214(a)(1)), is amended-- (1) by striking ``State officials or the United States Postal Service'' and inserting ``a State, a local government, the United States Postal Service, or a public library that meets the requirements described in paragraph (4)''; and (2) by striking ``by such officials or by that Service.'' and inserting ``by such State, local government, Postal Service, or public library.''. SEC. 6055. BENEFIT CALCULATION FOR CERTAIN AUTO AND DEFENSE PENSIONS. (a) Guaranteed Benefit Calculation for Certain Plans.-- (1) In general.-- (A) Increase to full vested plan benefit.-- (i) In general.--For purposes of determining what benefits are guaranteed under section 4022 of the Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974 (29 U.S.C.”
“(2) Report.--Not later than 30 days after the date of the enactment of this Act, the Secretary of State shall submit to the relevant congressional committees a report that includes-- (A) documentation of the Secretary's compliance with the requirements described in paragraph (1); or (B) if the Secretary is not in compliance with such requirements, an explanation for such noncompliance. (c) Conforming Amendment.--Subsection (a)(1) of the Passport Act of June 4, 1920 (22 U.S.C.”
“(b) Authorization of Public Libraries Which Previously Served as Passport Acceptance Facilities.-- (1) In general.--Not later than 30 days after the date of the enactment of this Act, the Secretary of State shall authorize any public library to serve as a passport acceptance facility and to collect and retain an execution fee for a passport accepted by such library, if, before the date of the enactment of this Act, such public library-- (A) served as a passport acceptance facility; and (B) was in compliance with the regulations prescribed by the Secretary of State for the acceptance and execution of passport applications.”
“214(a)), is amended by adding at the end the following: ``(4) The Secretary of State may authorize a public library that is organized as a nongovernmental organization, a nonprofit, charitable organization, or a trust to serve as a passport acceptance facility and to collect and retain the execution fee for a passport accepted by such public library if such library is in compliance with regulations prescribed by the Secretary of State for the acceptance and execution of passport applications.''.”
“``(B) Limitation.--Nothing in clause (ii) of subparagraph (A) shall be construed to authorize the procurement, installation, or use of ineligible semiconductor manufacturing equipment that is not allowed under the terms of an agreement entered into prior to the date of enactment of the Chip EQUIP Act. ``(4) Foreign entities of concern.--Nothing in this subsection may be construed to waive the application of section 9907.''. SEC. 6054. AUTHORIZATION OF CERTAIN PUBLIC LIBRARIES TO COLLECT AND RETAIN FEES FOR ACCEPTANCE AND EXECUTION OF PASSPORT APPLICATIONS. (a) In General.--Subsection (a) of the Passport Act of June 4, 1920 (22 U.S.C.”
“4801)); and ``(ii) the Secretary, in consultation with the Director of National Intelligence or the Secretary of Defense, determines such waiver is in the national security interest of the United States. ``(3) Prior agreements.-- ``(A) In general.--The prohibitions referred to in paragraph (1) shall not apply to any ineligible semiconductor manufacturing equipment that-- ``(i) has been installed by the applicable covered entity prior to the date of enactment of the Chip EQUIP Act; or ``(ii) is allowed to be procured, installed, or used by the applicable covered entity under the terms of an agreement that was entered into before the date of enactment of the Chip EQUIP Act between the Secretary and the covered entity.”
“``(2) Waiver.--The Secretary may waive the prohibitions referred to in paragraph (1) if-- ``(A) the ineligible semiconductor manufacturing equipment to be purchased by the applicable covered entity is not produced in the United States or an allied or partner country in sufficient and reasonably available quantities or of a satisfactory quality to support established or expected production capabilities; ``(B) the ineligible semiconductor manufacturing equipment at issue was manufactured and assembled by an entity that is not a foreign entity of concern, or a subsidiary or affiliate thereof, and was refurbished by a foreign entity of concern, or a subsidiary or affiliate thereof; or ``(C)(i) the use of the ineligible semiconductor manufacturing equipment complies with the requirements set forth in the Export Administration Regulations (as such term is defined in section 1742 of the Export Control Reform Act of 2018 (50 U.S.C.”
“(c) Ineligible Use of Funds.--Section 9909 of the William M. (Mac) Thornberry National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2021 (15 U.S.C. 4659) is amended-- (1) by redesignating subsection (f) as subsection (g); and (2) by inserting after subsection (e) the following new subsection: ``(f) Ineligible Use of Funds.-- ``(1) In general.--Subject to paragraphs (2) and (3), the Secretary shall include in the terms of each agreement with a covered entity for the award of Federal financial assistance under section 9902, or with the recipient of an award made under section 9906, prohibitions with respect to a project relating to the procurement, installation, or use of ineligible semiconductor manufacturing equipment, to be effective for 10 years beginning on the date on which the agreement is signed.”
“``(15) The term `ineligible semiconductor manufacturing equipment'-- ``(A) means completed, fully assembled equipment that is manufactured, assembled, or refurbished by a foreign entity of concern, or a subsidiary or affiliate thereof, and designed for use in the fabrication, assembly, testing, advanced packaging, production, or research and development of semiconductors; ``(B) includes-- ``(i) deposition equipment; ``(ii) etching equipment; ``(iii) lithography equipment; ``(iv) inspection, measuring, and test equipment; ``(v) wafer slicing equipment; ``(vi) wafer dicing equipment; ``(vii) wire bonders; ``(viii) ion implantation equipment; ``(ix) chemical mechanical polishing; ``(x) diffusion or oxidation furnaces; ``(xi) thermal processing equipment; and ``(xii) automated material handling systems; and ``(C) does not include any part, chamber, subsystem, or subcomponent that enables or is incorporated into such equipment.''.”
“4651) is amended by adding at the end the following: ``(14) The term `completed, fully assembled', with respect to semiconductor manufacturing equipment, means the state in which all (or substantially all) necessary parts, chambers, subsystems, and subcomponents have been put together, resulting in such equipment that is-- ``(A) ready-to-use or ready-to-install; and ``(B) ready to be purchased directly from an entity.”
“``(5) The sentence of a person convicted of an offense under subsection (e) may be increased by up to 10 years if-- ``(A)(i) the offense involved the use of a dangerous weapon; or ``(ii) personal injury resulted; and ``(B) such offense was committed knowingly at the direction of or in coordination with a foreign government or an agent of a foreign government. ``(6) In this subsection, the term `agent of a foreign power' has the meaning given that term in section 1201(h).''. SEC. 6053. PURCHASES OF SEMICONDUCTOR MANUFACTURING EQUIPMENT. (a) Short Title.--This section may be cited as the ``Chip Equipment Quality, Usefulness, and Integrity Protection Act of 2026'' or the ``Chip EQUIP Act''. (b) Definitions.--Section 9901 of the William M. (Mac) Thornberry National Defense Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 2021 (15 U.S.C.”